According to reports in the United States, DeAndre Yedlin has received a “major offer” from an unnamed MLS side.
This comes from SBI Soccer, who report that a serious bid has arrived for the USA international who is set to become a free agent at the end of the season if now new contract is forthcoming.
They claim that Yedlin is now ‘considering’ their offer, with this arriving after CBS Sports revealed over the weekend that the right-back has also received interest from Turkish giants Besiktas and Trabonzspor.
SBI state that the 27-year-old’s recent return to action and impressive display in our 0-0 draw with Liverpool has ‘boosted his profile’ now the January transfer window has opened.
They also state that the ‘unidentified’ club who’ve now joined the race is an ‘Eastern Conference team’, with their educated guesses featuring the likes of Columbus Crew, FC Cincinnati, Inter Miami and Atlanta United – the club Miguel Almiron left to sign at St James’ Park!
Yedlin has been solid in his last three league starts against City, Liverpool and Leicester, however he may well be playing for a move and is someone who has often been our weak link defensively in recent seasons.
His pace and athleticism is second to none and he seems a well liked member of the squad and good character, but it is perhaps time we upgraed our options at right-back.
After several years in England across stints with Spurs, Sunderland and Newcastle United, it would be no major surprise if the former Seattle Sounders man and USMNT star returned to his homeland in 2021!